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it seems to be singular or plural for the same thing.. like buleria and bulerias, or tango and tangos. which leads to another question.. why/when are the palos referred to in plural, instead of singular? a style of solea, like solea de alcala is in singular for instance. but then there's tangos de malaga in plural. some palos are generally always in singular.. like farruca, zambra, guajira. perhaps it's just sounds better to say..
Sometimes you use the plural and sometimes the singular form, but it's all the same. The reason is this: It depends on the point of view. If you regard a song as a collection of different falsetas, then you would use plural, if you regard a song as one unity you would use singular.
why/when are the palos referred to in plural, instead of singular? a style of solea, like solea de alcala is in singular for instance. but then there's tangos de malaga in plural. some palos are generally always in singular.. like farruca, zambra, guajira. perhaps it's just sounds better to say..
Yeah it just sounds better. A cante solo may have only one letra of something like "granaina" and one "malagueña", but the whole performance gets called "Malagueñas". But yeah it would make sense if plural refered to the fact you will do more than one letra of whatever palo. But it does not have to. Use the terms interchangeably to describe a performance. Often performances are improvised "por bulerias", etc. Also, often in andaluz, the final "s" is lost. "un, do, tre..." or "no(s) vemo(s)" etc.