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1. Is he actually switching from A to D and then coming back to A? I have seen changing keys in Bulerias many times but that usually happens from one falseta to another one. This one occurs within the same falseta.
If the key is actually being changed, is there any significance of the chords he is using to come back to A?
2. If the key is not being changed, does that mean I can use similar progressions fro different keys like E phrygian (Am - G - F) and land back to A by manipulating that last chord (in the case of E phryg, an F)
Please let me know if you need any more clarification. I will be happy to explain anything else needed. But I am interested in what is happening.
it is a good example of tonality going on in flamenco. In Tonal harmony you need to understand the entire chromatic spectrum is available to any one key center, and before considering full on modulation to a new key center, understand that chromatics can be used to TONICIZE existing chord tones in your key. The distinction can be personal or subjective based on how long you dwell on a chord tone other than tonic whether you describe it as modulation or tonicization.
In this case Paco is TONICIZING chord tones in this manner.
The first chord is actually Gm or Gm7/D, so right here you see he is emphasizing chord tone 7 in A phrygian. The Eb bass note is actually functioning as b9 of a dominant chord (D7b9)...and in tonal classical harmony we say "V7/vii" if Phrygian tonic was A. Already this is fringe or weird language but that is what is going on. He is briefly emphasizing the 7 (vii) chord Gm here. Note the melodic minor uses E NATURAL, before Gm, which negates that phrygian sound. Now the next part C to F is a return to the normal A phrygian tonality, the CAMBIO, as for the cante, moving to relative major F major. The E natural cancels Eb from earlier (already semi cancelled), basically the Gm centered thing we just heard.
You are absolutely CORRECT that G minor and D phrygian share the same notes, but again to consider a full on modulation is subjective here as he does not really want to leave A phrygian completely, and get us back there somehow.
So the Eb major would infact on its own, be an expression as you say in D phrygian, however, I would again view this as a borrowed 4 from Bb which is our 2 chord ("IV/II" again weird language but "correct"). This is functioning very much like F7-Bb type of basic movement that you could easily substitute here (also viewed as "plagal" Eb-Bb major). He returns however to that Ebmaj9 (Eb Bb D F but double check that as I don't know it with the Eb bass from the original, it is still Bb from previous, maybe you are adding that?) giving the impression as you say "D phrygian modulation", but obviously the simple view that he wants to tonicize II or Bb, as the final movement back to tonic is what actually happens here. (technically he uses C-> Gm->A as the final cadence like Tiento/Tango typical thing).
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