Ricardo -> RE: Question about Palos and their uses (Sep. 1 2014 15:12:20)
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ORIGINAL: ZaidRockso Ok, so simply, do all flamenco songs follow a palo? Is it not flamenco if you don't follow a palo? For example, Vicente Amigo's Roma, or PDL's Entre dos aguas. Second question, if the above is correct, does it follow it during the entire song? Let's say i'm writing an Alegrias, throughout second 1 to second 240, it's going to have to follow the 12 beat? Thanks, much appreciated Simply put "yes"...but Roma is NOT a form, but Entre dos Aguas IS a "rumba". Typically compas or other form elements maintain throughout, but for example "12 beats" is not a "rule". Half compas phrases of 6, and other anomalies may occur (in Alegria for example) in a single performance and it doesn't change the integrity of the song form. A form can have it's melodic and harmonic structure, and/or rhythmic structure. In some cases things can get mixed up on purpose. For example, the song form called "fandango" can get the "por solea" or "por buleria" treatment...that is, the song form is fandango but it is set to the RHYTHM of solea, or buleria etc. With cante it is more obvious, but to point an instrumental example we notice the ending of "Compadres" duet of Paco de lucia and Manolo Sanlucar is in fact a fandangos, although the piece as a whole was set to buleria compas. Normally when this mixing of palos occurs, no special label is used it is just up to aficionados to understand or not what is happening. Issues of taste come into play as well. For example, you can have the "fandango por solea" mixed form, but you would not do the opposite thing and dumb down the song of "solea de alcala" by setting it to the rhythm of fandango or rumba etc. Well, you could in theory but the issue of taste would just say it is all wrong. Hope that helps amigo.
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