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RE: Western art music is to Scale/mode as Flamenco, Arab, Hindustan are to...?   You are logged in as Guest
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Beni2

 

Posts: 139
Joined: Apr. 23 2018
 

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to kitarist

quote:

I also found his dissertation entitled "Formación musical del cante flamenco: en torno a la figura de Silverio Franconetti (1830-1889)". It was published as a book - "Génesis musical del cante flamenco: De lo remoto a lo tangible en la música flamenca hasta la muerte de Silverio Franconetti".

Thanks for sharing. I had not seen the dissertation.
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 18:34:24
 
Beni2

 

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RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to tf10music

quote:

requisite caution is necessary in these cases.

Have you written in a historical vein before, perhaps in an attempt to solve, or at least find a new way of looking at, an old problem? If so, I'd love any advice you have. Also, I don't believe in political correctness, but kindness and empathy always work when you do not know somebody's life and struggles. That's just me.
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 18:39:42
 
Richard Jernigan

Posts: 3430
Joined: Jan. 20 2004
From: Austin, Texas USA

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Beni2

Though I've been interested in flamenco for a while, I have only dipped a toe into the historical and musicological literature: read a few books.

One thing I haven't come across in my spotty reading is an investigation of recent (19th century onward) influence of Moorish or Arabic music on the formation of flamenco.

Spanish contact with Moorish culture didn't end with the expulsion of the moriscos. Tangier is less than an hour's boat ride across the Strait from Tarifa. In both Spain and Morocco I have run into people who have spent significant time in the other country. For example Antonio Mairena made a few recordings in Morocco while traveling there.

In a night club outside Tangier I heard a Moroccan band play for dancing a piece that could have been lifted off a Niño Ricardo recording called a zambra.

Could some of the Moorish or "Arabic" elements of flamenco have been of fairly recent origin?

RNJ
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 21:07:07
 
mark indigo

 

Posts: 3625
Joined: Dec. 5 2007
 

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Richard Jernigan

quote:

In a night club outside Tangier I heard a Moroccan band play for dancing a piece that could have been lifted off a Niño Ricardo recording called a zambra.

Could some of the Moorish or "Arabic" elements of flamenco have been of fairly recent origin?


I understood the mid-20th Century guitar solo "Zambra" came about from flamenco guitarists visiting Spanish Morocco and hearing local musicians play. I think I read something about Sabicas doing that, but can't remember the source.

In his book "Performing al-Andalus: Music and Nostalgia across the Mediterranean" Jonathan Holt Shannon makes a point that much of the music that is today known as Andalusian classical music, ṭarab andalusi, or Andalusi music, although belonging to a long tradition said to go back to mediaeval Spain, was composed in the 19th Century.

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  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 21:24:10
 
tf10music

 

Posts: 112
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RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Beni2

quote:

Have you written in a historical vein before, perhaps in an attempt to solve, or at least find a new way of looking at, an old problem? If so, I'd love any advice you have. Also, I don't believe in political correctness, but kindness and empathy always work when you do not know somebody's life and struggles. That's just me.


I typically engage with some historiography and hermeneutics, despite the fact that when I write in the critical vein I tend to work at the intersection between literary studies and philosophy. In a lot of cases, it's usually a mixture of intellectual and social history that enables me to look at an old problem from a new angle. In the case of duende and tarab for instance, there are places in which etymology, mystical ideologies of revelation, performance practices and social history converge. From there, my main issue is a methodological one: does the available constellation of 'facts' (I am using that word very loosely here) suggest the truth-value of a given philosophical/analytical stance? If so, I go with it. But often, I am compelled to mix together different approaches and revise certain philosophical systems in light of what the information has disclosed.

I don't know if that gets at your question, and I'm rather early on in my own academic trajectory, so I'm sure my approach will shift as the years go by.
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 22:14:04
 
tf10music

 

Posts: 112
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RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Richard Jernigan

quote:

One thing I haven't come across in my spotty reading is an investigation of recent (19th century onward) influence of Moorish or Arabic music on the formation of flamenco.


In K. Meira Goldberg's recent book ("Sonidos Negros") she talks about how at the Paris World Fair in 1889 flamenco performers were presented alongside acts from French-controlled Northern Africa. Spain was orientalized by the rest of Europe throughout the 18th and 19th centuries, and a great deal of this was certainly internalized within flamenco performance practice. In this sense, the identification between flamenco and Moorish or Arab culture certainly influenced the directions that the former took in its development.
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 22:27:55
 
Beni2

 

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Joined: Apr. 23 2018
 

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Richard Jernigan

quote:

Could some of the Moorish or "Arabic" elements of flamenco have been of fairly recent origin?

Great question Richard. I believe so. One example is the hemiola rhythmic structure of many of the genres. Listen to the early recordings I am not convinced that the compas was well established as a hypermetrical cyclical structure. I think compas was still evolving at the turn of the century and there was no objective difference between, say, the solea and the buleria.

There is a lot to think about. If you reduce all the flamenco palos to their basic musical elements it is difficult, for meanyway, to think that something of "Indian" music did not survive and still embedded in flamenco. If that does not seem plausible, one should ask when and where Romani emerged as a language and how much of it remains.

One problem is so many flamenco studies use biological metaphors; this genre begat that genre begat genre x. A better biological metaphor would introduce reticulate or horizontal genetic transfer but that would be very cerebral. Another problem is some things are just lost to history. However, I think some hypothetical speculation is always healthy especially when new theoretical paradigms and new data emerge.

EDIT: I responded generally but in regard to recent arabic influence I am not sure. I argue that there are certain cultural elements in flamenco that extend back in time and are of "Arabic/Sephardic" origin. Flamenco is always evolving and artists such as El Lebrijano and Lole were always fusing. I am pretty sure Lole has some "Arabic" background. Farruco (the patriarch) I am pretty sure also had Arabic lineage.
quote:

Spanish contact with Moorish culture didn't end with the expulsion of the moriscos.

This implies that culture absorbed or learned disappears when there is no longer culture contact. Perhaps you didn't mean to imply this but this is an argument often used in flamenco studies; "the Moors were expelled in 1492 and flamenco emerged in the nineteenth century so Moorish influence is impossible."
I think I recommended Barbara Fuchs book before but I'll recommend it again. It's a study of how Moorish cultural practices and artifacts continued to shape Spanish Andalusian culture long after the expulsion.
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 23:00:21
 
BarkellWH

Posts: 3458
Joined: Jul. 12 2009
From: Washington, DC

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Beni2

quote:

EDIT: I responded generally but in regard to recent arabic influence I am not sure. I argue otherwise. I think there are certain cultural elements that extend back in time that are of "Arabic/Sephardic" origin.


I think I was saying something similar when I wrote in a previous comment in this thread: "It may be an open question just when flamenco became recognizable as 'flamenco,' but I don't think there is any question about the influence Arabic, via the Moors, has had on flamenco."

Both you and Ricardo appeared to suggest that this observation lacked hard evidence and thus could not be taken seriously. (Your response was: "Yes, but who influenced what?") Admittedly, it is an anecdotal generalization and in itself would not be acceptable in a dissertation on the topic. But as a musicologist specializing in flamenco, I would be interested in your thoughts on it?

Bill

_____________________________

And the end of the fight is a tombstone white,
With the name of the late deceased,
And the epitaph drear, "A fool lies here,
Who tried to hustle the East."

--Rudyard Kipling
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 27 2021 23:36:39
 
Brendan

Posts: 353
Joined: Oct. 30 2010
 

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Richard Jernigan

@Richard I’ve often wondered this very thing. We hear a lot about influences from the Andalusian caliphates that are supposed to have lain buried like Viking treasure for centuries, only to re-emerge as flamenco, but nothing about influences from living Moroccans just over the water. Why is this? Once flamenco becomes an object of national, regional, local or ethnic pride, it’s more comfortable for the undeniable ‘Moorish’ elements to be traced to a glamorous, chivalric, territorially Spanish and above all long dead population. The alternative is that foreign, Muslim culture is penetrating the border of Spain, and Christendom, and fertilising flamenco with its oriental juice.

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https://sites.google.com/site/obscureflamencology/
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 28 2021 0:45:19
 
Beni2

 

Posts: 139
Joined: Apr. 23 2018
 

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to BarkellWH

quote:

Both you and Ricardo appeared to suggest that this observation lacked hard evidence and thus could not be taken seriously. (Your response was: "Yes, but who influenced what?") Admittedly, it is an anecdotal generalization and in itself would not be acceptable in a dissertation on the topic. But as a musicologist specializing in flamenco, I would be interested in your thoughts on it?

I won't speak for Ricardo but my objection was not to whether or not there is hard evidence for the influence of "Arabic culture via the Moors" on flamenco. Rather, my issue (as a theoretical not practical matter) has to do with demonstrating that maqam practices are found in flamenco vocal and guitar iterations. If one cannot demonstrate a historical connection with some line of causation or correlation, then can flamenco really be explained with maqam theory?
The easy solution is to just say "although no one has demonstrated a direct connection between melodic practices in flamenco and Arabic maqam, it it useful to think with because x, y, and z."
I believe someone already pointed this out but some ajnas (not jins, oops) are not playable on western instruments. This ups the stakes in cross-cultural investigations because it could be that some artists at some point were imitating ajnas within constraints the idiomatic constraints of their instruments . How do we know that if we do not investigate? Although I do believe empirical evidence is important, I also worry that some scholars are afraid to hypothesize and that this fear might sometimes be born of fear (i.e. not getting tenured, not getting published, etc.).
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 28 2021 0:59:35
 
BarkellWH

Posts: 3458
Joined: Jul. 12 2009
From: Washington, DC

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Richard Jernigan

quote:

Spanish contact with Moorish culture didn't end with the expulsion of the moriscos. Tangier is less than an hour's boat ride across the Strait from Tarifa. In both Spain and Morocco I have run into people who have spent significant time in the other country.


Spanish contact with Morocco goes further than that. There are the two enclaves of Melilla and Ceuta on the Moroccan coast that Spain has held since the 17th century. Originally claimed by Portugal, Spain still holds them today. And Spain held Spanish Sahara (today known as Western Sahara) since the 19th century. It relinquished the territory, which claims independence but which Morocco now claims.

I leave it to the musicologists as to whether or not these Spanish possessions in and adjacent to Morocco historically have had any influence on flamenco.

Bill

_____________________________

And the end of the fight is a tombstone white,
With the name of the late deceased,
And the epitaph drear, "A fool lies here,
Who tried to hustle the East."

--Rudyard Kipling
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 28 2021 2:42:39
 
Ricardo

Posts: 14801
Joined: Dec. 14 2004
From: Washington DC

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to BarkellWH

quote:

Both you and Ricardo appeared to suggest that this observation lacked hard evidence and thus could not be taken seriously. (Your response was: "Yes, but who influenced what?") Admittedly, it is an anecdotal generalization and in itself would not be acceptable in a dissertation on the topic. But as a musicologist specializing in flamenco, I would be interested in your thoughts on it?


Well, as mentioned, and if you watch me “learning” about makkam of Turkey on that other topic I linked to, you can see right away the micro tone distinctions are no small detail. The way I see it...if the Arabic/Greek/Indian modal systems managed to get filtered through Equal Tempermant and tonal system resulting in western music, but managed to sneak in the back door of flamenco cante, then this tuning issue would have made the cantaores reject the guitar outright. Singing an E note vs an E half flat is a BRICK WALL right off the bat, musicologists don’t seem to get that.

Where as if the cante had already been filtered through equal tempered church and western music systems, baroque, classical, finally romantic period harmonies and melodies, then the guitar is GREAT, and any connection to the old world modal system has long ago already turned into different species of being. The tonos of the guitar are already in the minds of the cantaores as the cante we know today was being created. The main forms prove this by their adherence to a harmonic structure. There were/are no “tonos” in Greek Arabic or indian music, not now nor a thousand years ago. The concept of “tonos” or chords and progressions, are an equal tempered one...equal tempermant was an organization of ALL modal systems into a SINGLE framework called “tonality”, to be distinguished from the various “modalities” and it was finally achieved by deliberately and knowingly screwing up the beautiful tuning of the modal systems. Think of it as a VIOLENT twisting and forcing into a new form, not a minor musical detail. All links get severed at that junction...unless they bypassed it totally (traditional modal music of today which easily preserves the forms and terminology).

One can argue Turkish pop music is a fusion of the old modal singing and western harmony and like wise that is what cante flamenco is. This could also mean the cante could be the thing imposing on some GUITAR form, a nice neat baroque structure that gets the pseudo middle eastern vocal treatment, think Gipsy kings meets frank sinatra. Sure, and likewise all music is a fusion of Greek math ideas of music with whichever modern aesthetic interprets it. Al Dimeola’s “Egyptian Danza” is certainly an ancient Egyptian dance that has since evolved, through the filter of western music, but retains that important African element which is???? What is this style of music, more Pythagorean or more Bach?

We can trace flamenco back to the first wax cylinder then stop...from there we must extrapolate, guess, or look at written scores that might be relevant. The further back you go the fuzzier the connection gets. We can see the song form “fandango” of Scarlatti, while related most likely, is NOT the same FORM that flamenco uses today. Where did it change and why? There IS an answer hiding in that small time period of 1800’s and Arabs probably don’t have much to do with it specifically.

_____________________________

CD's and transcriptions available here:
www.ricardomarlow.com
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 28 2021 3:36:02
 
Beni2

 

Posts: 139
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RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Ricardo

quote:

Singing an E note vs an E half flat is a BRICK WALL right off the bat, musicologists don’t seem to get that.
Which ones?

quote:

The tonos of the guitar are already in the minds of the cantaores as the cante we know today was being created. The main forms prove this by their adherence to a harmonic structure. There were/are no “tonos” in Greek Arabic or indian music, not now nor a thousand years ago.
The guitar is a harmonic instrument but the voice is microtonal. The question is, to what extent have melodic gestures in the vocals been tempered by the constraints of harmony. I can't tell you the number of times I have heard, for example, a cantaor who hits a target "a" in the first tercio of a solea de Alcala to which the guitarist responds with an Am chord, but the singer then embellishes it by descending somewhere between the target "a" and g." What is a guitarist supposed to do with G3/4#. Stay on Am, go to E. And what about g1/4#? Stay on A, go to E, go to G? I have heard all these possibilities and sometimes you can sense the guitarist is attentive and cautious.

There is also a problem with sweeping generalizations. Some Jerezanos sing certain notes that sound flat to Western trained musicians but are common enough to be stylistic. Macanita comes to mind and she is amazing. Could it be that proximity to Morroco, as Bill pointed out, tempers these microtonal practices? I don't know. I am just riffing on questions I sometimes think about.

quote:

We can trace flamenco back to the first wax cylinder then stop...from there we must extrapolate, guess, or look at written scores that might be relevant. The further back you go the fuzzier the connection gets. We can see the song form “fandango” of Scarlatti, while related most likely, is NOT the same FORM that flamenco uses today. Where did it change and why? There IS an answer hiding in that small time period of 1800’s and Arabs probably don’t have much to do with it specifically.
In regard to "Arabs," again, the question that Bill seemed to have and that I propose is that, based on the idea that most people agree that flamenco is a mix of cultures, who is responsible for what and when and where? Fandangos are sometimes attributed to the Moors but I think Brune suggested a Native American origin based on linguistic evidence. I think there is a bigger population that sees the fandangos as Andaluz with Arabic influence. Fandango means fiesta or juerga and is not a flamenco form. It is AFLAMENCADA. What are we supposed to do with that?

@Bill
I am optimistic that people with one foot planted in flamenco and another in academia will continue to discover new things and produce works that are refreshing and informative.
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 29 2021 23:25:59
 
BarkellWH

Posts: 3458
Joined: Jul. 12 2009
From: Washington, DC

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Beni2

quote:

@Bill
I am optimistic that people with one foot planted in flamenco and another in academia will continue to discover new things and produce works that are refreshing and informative.


Hear, Hear! That's why the Foro is enriched with people like you as contributors.

Bill

_____________________________

And the end of the fight is a tombstone white,
With the name of the late deceased,
And the epitaph drear, "A fool lies here,
Who tried to hustle the East."

--Rudyard Kipling
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 30 2021 2:14:23
 
El Burdo

 

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[Deleted] 

Post has been moved to the Recycle Bin at Dec. 21 2022 20:55:36
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 30 2021 12:34:48
 
Ricardo

Posts: 14801
Joined: Dec. 14 2004
From: Washington DC

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Beni2

quote:

The guitar is a harmonic instrument but the voice is microtonal. The question is, to what extent have melodic gestures in the vocals been tempered by the constraints of harmony. I can't tell you the number of times I have heard, for example, a cantaor who hits a target "a" in the first tercio of a solea de Alcala to which the guitarist responds with an Am chord, but the singer then embellishes it by descending somewhere between the target "a" and g." What is a guitarist supposed to do with G3/4#. Stay on Am, go to E. And what about g1/4#? Stay on A, go to E, go to G? I have heard all these possibilities and sometimes you can sense the guitarist is attentive and cautious.


I know what you mean. And I also think you are referring to Joaquin 1 specifically. But let me just say, I read this early on and believed it matter of factly...until one day I was on a gig with a Greek musician (electric bass) and despite our western progression, he was able to sneak in with his voice, over a Turkish pop song we were “jamming on”, some microtones...the effect is so striking and deliberate it actually affects you inside. I realized in that moment what microtones in eastern music REALLY are about, and there has never been any such specific thing going on in flamenco. I am saying I realized it then, and it is hard to explain because I don’t think I could do it myself without a lot of training. It is like micro surgery or something, and when you hear it and understand it is not something to pretend is done haphazardly. I don’t want to get deep into it here but let me just say this. If you use vibrato on your voice when singing, you can’t do those microtones at all. It defeats the purpose actually. Flamenco singers have always used vibrato. You can slow down recordings and see more clear what is happening with the vocal technique used by cantaores... I have always noticed when doing this, an adherence or attempted adherence by the cantaor to the western EQ temp scale, relative to the guitar. I am gonna leave it there for now.

Edit:about tempering orchestral instruments when guitar or piano is present...totally not the same thing as a sniper like razor sharp execution of microtones as is done in the eastern modal musics.

_____________________________

CD's and transcriptions available here:
www.ricardomarlow.com
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 30 2021 19:32:14
 
Ricardo

Posts: 14801
Joined: Dec. 14 2004
From: Washington DC

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Beni2

quote:

Fandangos are sometimes attributed to the Moors but I think Brune suggested a Native American origin based on linguistic evidence. I think there is a bigger population that sees the fandangos as Andaluz with Arabic influence. Fandango means fiesta or juerga and is not a flamenco form. It is AFLAMENCADA. What are we supposed to do with that?


Yes of course. The WORD...not the actual music form as we know it. Fandango the FORM, is HUGE in flamenco. The copla relative to the “ritornello” is observed in the Lopez piece...unfortunately I looked deeper (I did a harmonic analysis in other words) of the ritornello sections, and nothing in that piece is pointing to the actual ritornello forms used by guitarists in flamenco. There are “gestures” to use your word, such as the walking bass line F-G-G# to A...and brief Italian 6 resolutions to phrygian dominant, but NOT the actual fandango phrasing we are used to, (5 beat phrases that either start on 1, emphasize 3 and accent 5, nor the count 11->4, 5->9 type phrases that would constitute a model). Nor do I see a deliberate avoidance of the relative minor key half cadence (Bb->A instead of Dm->A), sadly my overexcited ear was hearing a lot of that at first (because I was excited by the resemblance of the sound and execution to flamenco fandango)...but in closer inspection it is MOSTLY half cadences in D minor going on.

What I am on about is that somewhere there exists the exact model and foundation of what evolved to be flamenco. I know folks can argue that the huelva model can be viewed as outside of flamenco, and alone stands clearly as the model the flamencos eventually used for all the derivatives (verdiales malaguena levante , later fandango naturales), but I am saying there must be also a model for THAT form specifically as well...hiding somewhere on paper.

_____________________________

CD's and transcriptions available here:
www.ricardomarlow.com
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Jan. 30 2021 20:43:11
 
aaron peacock

Posts: 141
Joined: Apr. 26 2020
From: Portugal

RE: Western art music is to Scale/mo... (in reply to Beni2

you probably already heard all these samples as this page has been often mentioned here... (scroll down for audio clips, your Joaquin 1 is in here too)

http://www.flamencopolis.com/archives/321

_____________________________

List of Arts Where Experimentation is Dangerous:
1) Sword-Combat
2) Aerial Acrobatics
  REPORT THIS POST AS INAPPROPRIATE |  Date Feb. 4 2021 0:35:29
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